There isn’t one true order of operations that is objectively correct
Yes there is, as found in Maths textbooks the world over
that’s hardly the way most people would write that
Maths textbooks write it that way
you wouldn’t use the / symbol
Yes you would.
You’d either use ÷
Same same
It’s a good candidate for nerd sniping.
Here's one I prepared earlier to save you the trouble
I’d call that 36
And you'd be wrong
as written given the context you’re saying it in
The context is Maths, you have to obey the rules of Maths. a(b+c)=(ab+ac), 5(8-5)=(5x8-5x5).
But I’d say it’s ambiguous
And you'd be wrong about that too
you should notate in a way to avoid ambiguities
It already is notated in a way that avoids all ambiguities!
Especially if you’re in the camp of multiplication like a(b)
That's not Multiplication, it's Distribution, a(b+c)=(ab+ac), a(b)=(axb).
being different from ab
Nope, that's exactly the same, ab=(axb) by definition
and/or a × b
(axb) is most certainly different to axb. 1/ab=1/(axb), 1/axb=b/a















and without a(b+c)=(ab+ac), now solve (ab+ac)
It's a LAW of Maths actually, The Distributive Law.
It's not "Multiplying", it's Distributing, a(b+c)=(ab+ac)
No it isn't. To get 36 you have disobeyed The Distributive Law, thus it is a wrong answer
people like you try to gaslight others that there's no such thing as The Distributive Law